I already looked up the passages that's why I said what I said earlier... neither genealogy has Mary as the descendant of David it says Joseph... now you can say that the "Logical Explanation" is that Luke is dealing with Mary lineage... but then why does it not actually say so ?
Because Jewish tradition says lineages are only recorded from the fathers. Furthermore in Matthew 1:16 it said "...Jacob begot Joseph..." while in Luke 3:23 it said "...Joseph, who was the son of Heli,..". "Begot" aka producing a child would mean to say that Jacob is Joseph's biological father, while "son of" can have different meanings because Joseph can, according to Jewish law, become the legal son of someone else by marrying his daughter.
Your first line almost kills your argument... if Jewish Tradition says that Lineages are recorded from the Fathers only then how can Luke be of Mary's Lineage ? Where else in Luke does he ever say that Mary is of David Lineage or even try to ? I mean in Luke 1 : 26 - 27 you have Joseph being called from the House of David and Mary as a footnote. Then again, in Luke 2:4 we have mention of Joseph being of the house of David... my thing is this, if Luke was trying to somehow show us that this lineage is of Mary... then why is it everywhere else where we have evidence of only Joseph being of the House of David ? They can't give any kind of footnote of Mary being of the House of David somewhere in Luke ?